DUMPS BASE EXAM DUMPS CISCO 200-301 28% OFF Automatically For You Cisco Certified Network Associate Clear 200-301 Exam With Great 200-301 Dumps Questions V21.02 [2022] 1.What are two benefits of network automation? (Choose two) A. reduced operational costs B. reduced hardware footprint C. faster changes with more reliable results D. fewer network failures E. increased network security Answer: AC 2.Which command enables a router to become a DHCP client? A. ip address dhcp B. ip helper-address C. ip dhcp pool D. ip dhcp client Answer: A Explanation: If we want to get an IP address from the DHCP server on a Cisco device, we can use the command "ip address dhcp". Note: The command "ip helper-address" enables a router to become a DHCP Relay Agent. Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios- xml/ios/ipaddr_dhcp/configuration/12-4/dhcp-12-4-book/config-dhcp-client.html 3.Which design element is a best practice when deploying an 802.11b wireless infrastructure? A. disabling TPC so that access points can negotiate signal levels with their attached wireless devices B. setting the maximum data rate to 54 Mbps on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller C. allocating nonoverlapping channels to access points that are in close physical proximity to one another D. configuring access points to provide clients with a maximum of 5 Mbps Answer: C 4.When configuring IPv6 on an interface, which two IPv6 multicast groups are joined? (Choose two) A. 2000::/3 B. 2002::5 C. FC00::/7 D. FF02::1 E. FF02::2 Answer: DE Clear 200-301 Exam With Great 200-301 Dumps Questions V21.02 [2022] Explanation: When an interface is configured with IPv6 address, it automatically joins the all nodes (FF02::1) and solicited-node (FF02::1:FFxx:xxxx) multicast groups. The all-node group is used to communicate with all interfaces on the local link, and the solicited- nodes multicast group is required for link-layer address resolution. Routers also join a third multicast group, the all-routers group (FF02::2). Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios- xml/ios/ipv6/configuration/xe-3s/ipv6-xe-36s-book/ip6-multicast.html 5.Which option about JSON is true? A. uses predefined tags or angle brackets (<>) to delimit markup text B. used to describe structured data that includes arrays C. used for storing information D. similar to HTML, it is more verbose than XML Answer: B Explanation: JSON data is written as name/value pairs. A name/value pair consists of a field name (in double quotes), followed by a colon, followed by a value: “name”:”Mark” JSON can use arrays. Array values must be of type string, number, object, array, boolean or null.. For example: { “name”:”John”, “age”:30, “cars”:[ “Ford”, “BMW”, “Fiat” ] } 6.Which IPv6 address type provides communication between subnets and cannot route on the Internet? A. global unicast B. unique local C. link-local D. multicast Answer: B Explanation: A IPv6 Unique Local Address is an IPv6 address in the block FC00::/7. It is the approximate IPv6 counterpart of the IPv4 private address. It is not routable on the global Internet. Note: In the past, Site-local addresses (FEC0::/10) are equivalent to private IP Clear 200-301 Exam With Great 200-301 Dumps Questions V21.02 [2022] addresses in IPv4 but now they are deprecated. Link-local addresses only used for communications within the local subnet. It is usually created dynamically using a link-local prefix of FE80::/10 and a 64-bit interface identifier (based on 48-bit MAC address). 7.Which command prevents passwords from being stored in the configuration as plaintext on a router or switch? A. enable secret B. service password-encryption C. username Cisco password encrypt D. enable password Answer: B 8.What are two southbound APIs? (Choose two) A. OpenFlow B. NETCONF C. Thrift D. CORBA E. DSC Answer: AB Explanation: OpenFlow is a well-known southbound API. OpenFlow defines the way the SDN Controller should interact with the forwarding plane to make adjustments to the network, so it can better adapt to changing business requirements. The Network Configuration Protocol (NetConf) uses Extensible Markup Language (XML) to install, manipulate and delete configuration to network devices. Other southbound APIs are: + onePK: a Cisco proprietary SBI to inspect or modify the network element configuration without hardware upgrades. + OpFlex: an open-standard, distributed control system. It send "summary policy" to network elements. 9.Which set of action satisfy the requirement for multi-factor authentication? A. The user swipes a key fob, then clicks through an email link. B. The user enters a user name and password, and then clicks a notification in an authentication app on a mobile device. C. The user enters a PIN into an RSA token, and then enters the displayed RSA key on a login screen. D. The user enters a user name and password and then re-enters the credentials on Clear 200-301 Exam With Great 200-301 Dumps Questions V21.02 [2022] a second screen. Answer: B Explanation: This is an example of how two-factor authentication (2FA) works: 10. The user logs in to the website or service with their username and password. 11. The password is validated by an authentication server and, if correct, the user becomes eligible for the second factor. 12. The authentication server sends a unique code to the user's second-factor method (such as a smartphone app). 13. The user confirms their identity by providing the additional authentication for their second-factor method. 14.Which two capacities of Cisco DNA Center make it more extensible? (Choose two) A. adapters that support all families of Cisco IOS software B. SDKs that support interaction with third-party network equipment C. customized versions for small, medium, and large enterprises D. REST APIs that allow for external applications to interact natively with Cisco DNA Center E. modular design that is upgradable as needed Answer: BD Explanation: Cisco DNA Center offers 360-degree extensibility through four distinct types of platform capabilities: + Intent-based APIs leverage the controller and enable business and IT applications to deliver intent to the network and to reap network analytics and insights for IT and business innovation. + Process adapters, built on integration APIs, allow integration with other IT and network systems to streamline IT operations and processes. + Domain adapters, built on integration APIs, allow integration with other infrastructure domains such as data center, WAN, and security to deliver a consistent intent-based infrastructure across the entire IT environment. + SDKs allow management to be extended to third-party vendor's network devices to offer support for diverse environments. 15.An email user has been lured into clicking a link in an email sent by their company’s security organization. The webpage that opens reports that it was safe but the link could have contained malicious code. Clear 200-301 Exam With Great 200-301 Dumps Questions V21.02 [2022] Which type of security program is in place? A. Physical access control B. Social engineering attack C. brute force attack D. user awareness Answer: D Explanation: This is a training program which simulates an attack, not a real attack (as it says “The webpage that opens reports that it was safe”) so we believed it should be called a “user awareness” program. Therefore the best answer here should be “user awareness”. This is the definition of “User awareness” from CCNA 200- 301 Offical Cert Guide Book: “User awareness: All users should be made aware of the need for data confidentiality to protect corporate information, as well as their own credentials and personal information. They should also be made aware of potential threats, schemes to mislead, and proper procedures to report security incidents. ” Note: Physical access control means infrastructure locations, such as network closets and data centers, should remain securely locked. 16.Which type of wireless encryption is used for WPA2 in pre-shared key mode? A. TKIP with RC4 B. RC4 C. AES-128 D. AES-256 Answer: D Explanation: We can see in this picture we have to type 64 hexadecimal characters (256 bit) for the WPA2 passphrase so we can deduce the encryption is AES-256, not AES-128. Clear 200-301 Exam With Great 200-301 Dumps Questions V21.02 [2022] Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless-mobility/wireless-lan- wlan/67134-wpa2-config.html 17.Which two must be met before SSH can operate normally on a Cisco IOS switch? (Choose two) A. The switch must be running a k9 (crypto) IOS image. B. The ip domain-name command must be configured on the switch. C. IP routing must be enabled on the switch. D. A console password must be configured on the switch. E. Telnet must be disabled on the switch. Answer: AB Explanation: Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security-vpn/secure-shell- ssh/4145-ssh.html 18.Which type of address is the public IP address of a NAT device? A. outside global B. outsdwde local Clear 200-301 Exam With Great 200-301 Dumps Questions V21.02 [2022] C. inside global D. insride local E. outside public F. inside public Answer: C Explanation: NAT use four types of addresses: * Inside local address -. The IP address assigned to a host on the inside network. The address is usually not an IP address assigned by the Internet Network Information Center (InterNIC) or service provider. This address is likely to be an RFC 1918 private address. * Inside global address - A legitimate IP address assigned by the InterNIC or service provider that represents one or more inside local IP addresses to the outside world. * Outside local address -. The IP address of an outside host as it is known to the hosts on the inside network. * Outside global address -. The IP address assigned to a host on the outside network. The owner of the host assigns this address. 19.Refer to the exhibit. Clear 200-301 Exam With Great 200-301 Dumps Questions V21.02 [2022] Which prefix does Router 1 use for traffic to Host A? A. 10.10.10.0/28 B. 10.10.13.0/25 C. 10.10.13.144/28 D. 10.10.13.208/29 Answer: D Explanation: Host A address fall within the address range. However, if more than one route to the same subnet exist (router will use the longest stick match, which match more specific route to the subnet). If there are route 10.10.13.192/26 and 10.10.13.208/29, the router will forward the packet to /29 rather than /28. 20. How does HSRP provide first hop redundancy? A. It load-balances traffic by assigning the same metric value to more than one route to the same destination m the IP routing table. B. It load-balances Layer 2 traffic along the path by flooding traffic out all interfaces configured with the same VLAN. C. It forwards multiple packets to the same destination over different routed links n the data path. D. It uses a shared virtual MAC and a virtual IP address to a group of routers that serve as the default gateway for hosts on a LAN. Answer: D Explanation: Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios- xml/ios/ipapp_fhrp/configuration/xe-16/fhp-xe-16-book/fhp-hsrp-mgo.html Clear 200-301 Exam With Great 200-301 Dumps Questions V21.02 [2022] 21.In Which way does a spine-and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are required? A. A spine switch and a leaf switch can be added with redundant connections between them. B. A spine switch can be added with at least 40 GB uplinks. C. A leaf switch can be added with a single connection to a core spine switch. D. A leaf switch can be added with connections to every spine switch. Answer: D Explanation: Spine-leaf architecture is typically deployed as two layers: spines (such as an aggregation layer), and leaves (such as an access layer). Spine-leaf topologies provide high-bandwidth, low-latency, nonblocking server-to-server connectivity. Leaf (aggregation) switches are what provide devices access to the fabric (the network of spine and leaf switches) and are typically deployed at the top of the rack. Generally, devices connect to the leaf switches. Devices can include servers, Layer 4- 7 services (firewalls and load balancers), and WAN or Internet routers. Leaf switches do not connect to other leaf switches. In spine-and-leaf architecture, every leaf should connect to every spine in a full mesh. Spine (aggregation) switches are used to connect to all leaf switches and are typically deployed at the end or middle of the row. Spine switches do not connect to other spine switches. 22.Which two actions are performed by the Weighted Random Early Detection mechanism? (Choose two) A. It drops lower-priority packets before it drops higher-priority packets. B. It can identify different flows with a high level of granularity. C. It guarantees the delivery of high-priority packets. D. It can mitigate congestion by preventing the queue from filling up. E. It supports protocol discovery. Answer: AD Explanation: Weighted Random Early Detection (WRED) is just a congestion avoidance mechanism. WRED drops packets selectively based on IP precedence. Edge routers assign IP precedences to packets as they enter the network. When a packet arrives, the following events occur: 23. The average queue size is calculated. 24. If the average is less than the minimum queue threshold, the arriving packet is queued. Clear 200-301 Exam With Great 200-301 Dumps Questions V21.02 [2022] 25. If the average is between the minimum queue threshold for that type of traffic and the maximum threshold for the interface, the packet is either dropped or queued, depending on the packet drop probability for that type of traffic. 26. If the average queue size is greater than the maximum threshold, the packet is dropped. WRED reduces the chances of tail drop (when the queue is full, the packet is dropped) by selectively dropping packets when the output interface begins to show signs of congestion (thus it can mitigate congestion by preventing the queue from filling up). By dropping some packets early rather than waiting until the queue is full, WRED avoids dropping large numbers of packets at once and minimizes the chances of global synchronization. Thus, WRED allows the transmission line to be used fully at all times. WRED generally drops packets selectively based on IP precedence. Packets with a higher IP precedence are less likely to be dropped than packets with a lower precedence. Thus, the higher the priority of a packet, the higher the probability that the packet will be delivered (-> answer A is correct). 27.A network engineer must back up 20 network router configurations globally within a customer environment. Which protocol allows the engineer to perform this function using the Cisco IOS MIB? A. CDP B. SNMP C. SMTP D. ARP Answer: B Explanation: SNMP is an application-layer protocol that provides a message format for communication between SNMP managers and agents. SNMP provides a standardized framework and a common language used for the monitoring and management of devices in a network. The SNMP framework has three parts: + An SNMP manager + An SNMP agent + A Management Information Base (MIB) The Management Information Base (MIB) is a virtual information storage area for network management information, which consists of collections of managed objects. With SNMP, the network administrator can send commands to multiple routers to do the backup. 28.Refer to the exhibit. Clear 200-301 Exam With Great 200-301 Dumps Questions V21.02 [2022] What is the effect of this configuration? A. The switch port interface trust state becomes untrusted. B. The switch port remains administratively down until the interface is connected to another switch. C. Dynamic ARP inspection is disabled because the ARP ACL is missing. D. The switch port remains down until it is configured to trust or untrust incoming packets. Answer: A Explanation: Dynamic ARP inspection (DAI) is a security feature that validates ARP packets in a network. It intercepts, logs, and discards ARP packets with invalid IP-to-MAC address bindings. This capability protects the network from certain man-in-the-middle attacks. After enabling DAI, all ports become untrusted ports. 29.A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence. Which two interface counters are incremented? (Choose two) A. runts B. giants C. frame D. CRC E. input errors Answer: DE Explanation: Whenever the physical transmission has problems, the receiving device might receive a frame whose bits have changed values. These frames do not pass the error detection logic as implemented in the FCS field in the Ethernet trailer. The receiving device discards the frame and counts it as some kind of input error. Cisco switches list this error as a CRC error. Cyclic redundancy check (CRC) is a term related to how the FCS math detects an error. The “input errors” includes runts, giants, no buffer, CRC, frame, overrun, and ignored counts. Clear 200-301 Exam With Great 200-301 Dumps Questions V21.02 [2022] The output below show the interface counters with the “show interface s0/0/0” command: 30.How do TCP and UDP differ in the way that they establish a connection between two endpoints? A. TCP uses synchronization packets, and UDP uses acknowledgment packets. B. UDP uses SYN, SYN ACK and FIN bits in the frame header while TCP uses SYN, SYN ACK and ACK bits. C. UDP provides reliable message transfer and TCP is a connectionless protocol. D. TCP uses the three-way handshake and UDP does not guarantee message delivery. Answer: D 31.When OSPF learns multiple paths to a network, how does it select a route? A. It multiple the active K value by 256 to calculate the route with the lowest metric. B. For each existing interface, it adds the metric from the source router to the destination to calculate the route with the lowest bandwidth. C. It divides a reference bandwidth of 100 Mbps by the actual bandwidth of the existing interface to calculate the router with the lowest cost. D. It count the number of hops between the source router and the destination to determine the router with the lowest metric. Clear 200-301 Exam With Great 200-301 Dumps Questions V21.02 [2022] Answer: C 32.Refer to the exhibit. Which password must an engineer use to enter the enable mode? A. adminadmin123 B. default C. testing1234 D. cisco123 Answer: C Explanation: If neither the enable password command nor the enable secret command is configured, and if there is a line password configured for the console, the console line password serves as the enable password for all VTY sessions ->. The "enable secret" will be used first if available, then "enable password" and line password. Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/optical/cpt/r9_3/configuration/guide /cpt93_configuration/cpt93_configuration_chapter_0100 33.Which configuration is needed to generate an RSA key for SSH on a router? A. Configure the version of SSH. B. Configure VTY access. C. Create a user with a password. D. Assign a DNS domain name. Answer: D Explanation: In order to generate an RSA key for SSH, we need to configure the hostname and a DNS domain name on the router (a username and password is also required). Therefore in fact both answer C and answer D are correct. Clear 200-301 Exam With Great 200-301 Dumps Questions V21.02 [2022] 34.Which output displays a JSON data representation? A) B) C) Clear 200-301 Exam With Great 200-301 Dumps Questions V21.02 [2022] D) A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D Answer: C Explanation: JSON data is written as name/value pairs. A name/value pair consists of a field name (in double quotes), followed by a colon, followed by a value: “name”:”Mark” JSON can use arrays. Array values must be of type string, number, object, array, boolean or null. For example: { “name”:”John”, “age”:30, Clear 200-301 Exam With Great 200-301 Dumps Questions V21.02 [2022] “cars”:[ “Ford”, “BMW”, “Fiat” ] } JSON can have empty object like “taskId”:{} 35.What is the primary different between AAA authentication and authorization? A. Authentication verifies a username and password, and authorization handles the communication between the authentication agent and the user database. B. Authentication identifies a user who is attempting to access a system, and authorization validates the users password. C. Authentication identifies and verifies a user who is attempting to access a system, and authorization controls the tasks the user can perform. D. Authentication controls the system processes a user can access and authorization logs the activities the user initiates. Answer: C Explanation: AAA stands for Authentication, Authorization and Accounting. + Authentication: Specify who you are (usually via login username & password) + Authorization: Specify what actions you can do, what resource you can access + Accounting: Monitor what you do, how long you do it (can be used for billing and auditing) An example of AAA is shown below: + Authentication: "I am a normal user. My username/password is user_tom/learnforever" + Authorization: "user_tom can access LearnCCNA server via HTTP and FTP" + Accounting: "user_tom accessed LearnCCNA server for 2 hours". This user only uses "show" commands. 36.A Cisco IP phone receive untagged data traffic from an attached PC. Which action is taken by the phone? A. It allows the traffic to pass through unchanged. B. It drops the traffic. C. It tags the traffic with the default VLAN. D. It tags the traffic with the native VLAN. Answer: A Explanation: Untagged traffic from the device attached to the Cisco IP Phone passes through the phone unchanged, regardless of the trust state of the access port on the phone. Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst2960x/softwar e/15-0_2_EX/vlan/configuration_guide/b_vlan_152ex_2960-x_cg/b_vlan_152ex_2960 -x_cg_chapter_0110.pdf Clear 200-301 Exam With Great 200-301 Dumps Questions V21.02 [2022] 37.An engineer must configure a /30 subnet between two routers. Which usable IP address and subnet mask combination meets this criteria? A. interface e0/0 description to HQ-A370:98968 ip address 10.2.1.3 255.255.255.252 B. interface e0/0 description to HQ-A370:98968 ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.248 C. interface e0/0 description to HQ-A370:98968 ip address 172.16.1.4 255.255.255.248 D. interface e0/0 description to HQ-A370:98968 ip address 209.165.201.2 255.255.255.252 Answer: D Explanation: A /30 subnet means subnet mask of 255.255.255.252. But 10.2.1.3 255.255.255.252 is a broadcast IP address; only 209.165.201.2/30 is the usable IP address. 38.What is a benefit of using a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller? A. Central AP management requires more complex configurations. B. Unique SSIDs cannot use the same authentication method. C. It supports autonomous and lightweight APs. D. It eliminates the need to configure each access point individually. Answer: D 39.What are two characteristics of a controller-based network? (Choose two) A. The administrator can make configuration updates from the CLI. B. It uses northbound and southbound APIs to communicate between architectural layers. C. It moves the control plane to a central point. D. It decentralizes the control plane, which allows each device to make its own forwarding decisions. E. It uses Telnet to report system issues. Answer: BC 40.Which attribute does a router use to select the best path when two or more different routes to the same destination exist from two different routing protocols? A. dual algorithm Clear 200-301 Exam With Great 200-301 Dumps Questions V21.02 [2022] B. metric C. administrative distance D. hop count Answer: C Explanation: Administrative distance is the feature used by routers to select the best path when there are two or more different routes to the same destination from different routing protocols. Administrative distance defines the reliability of a routing protocol. 41.Refer to Exhibit. How does SW2 interact with other switches in this VTP domain? A. It processes VTP updates from any VTP clients on the network on its access ports. B. It receives updates from all VTP servers and forwards all locally configured VLANs out all trunk ports. C. It forwards only the VTP advertisements that it receives on its trunk ports. D. It transmits and processes VTP updates from any VTP Clients on the network on its trunk ports. Answer: C Explanation: The VTP mode of SW2 is transparent so it only forwards the VTP updates it receives to its trunk links without processing them. Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/lan- switching/vtp/10558-21.html Clear 200-301 Exam With Great 200-301 Dumps Questions V21.02 [2022] 42.Which unified access point mode continues to serve wireless clients after losing connectivity to the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller? A. sniffer B. mesh C. flex connect D. local Answer: C Explanation: Explanation: Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/8-5/config- guide/b_cg85/flexconnect.html 43.Which two encoding methods are supported by REST APIs? (Choose two) A. YAML B. JSON C. EBCDIC D. SGML E. XML Answer: BE Explanation: The Application Policy Infrastructure Controller (APIC) REST API is a programmatic interface that uses REST architecture. The API accepts and returns HTTP (not enabled by default) or HTTPS messages that contain JavaScript Object Notation (JSON) or Extensible Markup Language (XML) documents. Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus1000/sw /5_x/rest_api_config/b_Cisco_N1KV_VMware_REST_API_Config_5x/b_Cisco_N1KV _VMware_REST_API_Config_5x_chapter_010.pdf 44.What are two reasons that cause late collisions to increment on an Ethernet interface? (Choose two) A. when the sending device waits 15 seconds before sending the frame again B. when the cable length limits are exceeded C. when one side of the connection is configured for half-duplex D. when Carner Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection is used E. when a collision occurs after the 32nd byte of a frame has been transmitted Answer: BC Explanation: A late collision is defined as any collision that occurs after the first 512 bits (or 64th byte) of the frame have been transmitted. The usual possible causes are full- duplex/half-duplex mismatch, exceeded Ethernet cable length limits, or defective hardware such as incorrect cabling, noncompliant number of hubs in the network, or a